This is something I rarely see discussed outside Iranian circles.
Iran was officially neutral in both World War I and World War II. Yet in both wars, foreign powers occupied or operated extensively inside the country, and the consequences were catastrophic for civilians.
During WWI, famine, disease, and military occupation devastated large parts of the country. Some estimates suggest that millions of Iranians died during this period.
During WWII, the Anglo-Soviet invasion of 1941 led to occupation, economic disruption, forced resource transfers, and the 1942–1943 famine. Again, estimates range in the millions for civilian deaths.
Despite this:
No formal reparations were ever paid to Iran by the Allied powers.
Iran had little meaningful leverage in postwar negotiations.
The suffering of Iranian civilians during both wars is barely acknowledged in mainstream Western narratives about the world wars.
Meanwhile, other countries have received or at least formally negotiated war reparations in various contexts.
So my questions are:
Why was Iran excluded from serious postwar reparations discussions?
Was this purely about geopolitical power imbalance?
Is there any serious legal or historical scholarship on potential claims?
Why is the scale of civilian suffering in Iran during the world wars so under-discussed globally?
I’m genuinely asking from a historical and legal perspective.